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Many candidates will have to carry out
coursework as part of their examination.
Tips:
-State how you are going to try to investigate the task.
-If your method does not work, explain why and try another
method.
-Write down any observations you can make from your tables,
diagrams, graphs or formulae.
-Remember to check your statements before drawing conclusions.
-To obtain the higher grades, you must develop the task
further.
-Do not write essays.
-Use short sentences and be precise.
Example: (Note this is not a model answer, it is simply
one method of approaching the question)
A firm has two schemes for the payment of travel expenses.
Scheme 1 pays p pence per mile for the first k
mile travelled; and then q pence per mile for each mile
travelled beyond the first k miles.
Scheme 2 pays r pence for each mile travelled.
1. Calculate the amount paid in travel expenses for a journey
of 500 mules under each scheme when p = 33, q = 20, r = 25 and
k = 75.
When a question is split into parts in this way, the first
part will usually be fairly straight forward.
For 500 miles, Scheme 1 pays 33 pence per mile for the
first 75 miles and then 20 pence per mile for each mile
travelled beyond the first 75 miles.
In other words, (33 × 75) + (20 × 425) = (2475 + 8500)p = £109.75
Similarly, Scheme 2 pays £125.00 .
2. A company member travels a distance of 200 miles.
Write down expressions, involving p, q, r and k, which will
give the amount paid for his travel expenses under each
scheme.
Scheme 1: amount paid = p pence for the first k mile
travelled [= pk] plus q pence for each mile travelled beyond
the first k miles [= q(200-k) ].
So the amount paid = pk + q(200 - k)
Scheme 2: amount paid = 200r
3. The 'break-even point' is the distance for which the
two schemes pay the same amount. The manager believes that
there will always be a 'break-even point' for the two schemes.
(a) Set up expressions involving p, q, r
and k which will work out the amount paid in travel
expenses under each of schemes 1 and 2.
Where m is the number of miles travelled:
Scheme 1: (simply replace 200 in the above equation by
m) amount paid = pk + q(m - k) = pk + mq - kq
Scheme 2: amount paid = mr
(b) Hence set up an equation which will determine the 'break-even
point' for various choices of p, q, r and k.
The break even point occurs when the amount paid by the two
schemes is equal, ie when
pk + mq - qk = mr
At this point you may like to select various values p, q, r
and k and determine the break-even point. A graph might be
handy (a graph of cost against number of miles travelled for
the two schemes?).
4. Obtain a range of solutions for this equation, confirming
or otherwise, with justification explanation or proof, whether
or not there is always a 'break-even point'.
A good answer to this part of the question is needed to obtain
the top marks (over 21 out of 24).
One possible way of approaching this question might be to
determine when there will be a break-even point and when there
won't. If, for example, k is negative, but (p - q) and (r - q)
are both positive, the value of m where the two schemes pay
the same amount of money will be negative,
since m = k(p - q) .
r - q
Unless a negative number of miles is travelled, the schemes
will not pay the same amount of money, whatever value of m is
picked.
-Pick some numbers which will show your claims and draw graphs
to help show what you are trying to say.
-Try r = 25, q = 25, k = 75 and p = 33. Plot cost against
number of miles travelled on a graph for each of the two
schemes and you will find that there is no break-even point.
-Will there be a break-even point in any other case?
Notes:
Forming equations gains credit. You could probably have gained
20 out of 24 for forming the equations that I have written in
part 3. For other problems, spending time trying to find and
explain the equation for a general pattern can be very
rewarding.
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(c) Matthew Pinkney
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